Theologically
Motivated Alterations
of the Text
Textual criticism involves more than simply determining the
original text. It also entails seeing how that text came to be
modified over time, both through scribal slips and as scribes made deliberate
modifications. The latter, the intentional changes, can be
highly significant, not because they necessarily help us understand what
the original authors were trying to say, but because they can show us
something about how the authors’ texts came to be interpreted by the
scribes who reproduced them. By seeing how scribes altered their
texts, we can discover clues about what these scribes thought was important
in the text, and so we can learn more about the history of the
texts as they came to be copied and recopied over the centuries.
The thesis of this chapter is that sometimes the texts of the New
Testament were modified for theological reasons. This happened
whenever the scribes copying the texts were concerned to ensure that
the texts said what they wanted them to say; sometimes this was because
of theological disputes raging in the scribes’ own day. To make
sense of this kind of change, we need to understand something about
theological disputes in the early centuries of Christianity—the centuries
in which most alterations of scripture were made, before the widespread
appearance of “professional” scribes.
The Theological Context of
the Transmission of the Texts
We know a good deal about Christianity during the second and third
centuries—the time, say, between the completion of the writing of the
New Testament books and the conversion of the Roman emperor
Constantine to the religion, which, as we have seen, changed everything.
1 These two centuries were particularly rich in theological diversity
among the early Christians. In fact, the theological diversity
was so extensive that groups calling themselves Christian adhered to
beliefs and practices that most Christians today would insist were not
Christian at all.2
In the second and third centuries there were, of course, Christians
who believed that there was only one God, the Creator of all there is.
Other people who called themselves Christian, however, insisted that
there were two different gods—one of the Old Testament (a God of
wrath) and one of the New Testament (a God of love and mercy).
These were not simply two different facets of the same God: they were
actually two different gods. Strikingly, the groups that made these
claims—including the followers of Marcion, whom we have already
met—insisted that their views were the true teachings of Jesus and his
apostles. Other groups, for example, of Gnostic Christians, insisted
that there were not just two gods, but twelve. Others said thirty.
Others still said 365. All these groups claimed to be Christian, insisting
that their views were true and had been taught by Jesus and his
followers.
Why didn’t these other groups simply read their New Testaments
to see that their views were wrong? It is because there was no New
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Testament. To be sure, all the books of the New Testament had been
written by this time, but there were lots of other books as well, also
claiming to be by Jesus’s own apostles—other gospels, acts, epistles,
and apocalypses having very different perspectives from those found
in the books that eventually came to be called the New Testament.
The New Testament itself emerged out of these conflicts over God (or
the gods), as one group of believers acquired more converts than all
the others and decided which books should be included in the canon
of scripture. During the second and third centuries, however, there
was no agreed-upon canon—and no agreed-upon theology. Instead,
there was a wide range of diversity: diverse groups asserting diverse
theologies based on diverse written texts, all claiming to be written by
apostles of Jesus.
Some of these Christian groups insisted that God had created
this world; others maintained that the true God had not created this
world (which is, after all, an evil place), but that it was the result of a
cosmic disaster. Some of these groups insisted that the Jewish scriptures
were given by the one true God; others claimed that the Jewish
scriptures belong to the inferior God of the Jews, who was not the one
true God. Some of these groups insisted that Jesus Christ was the
one Son of God who was both completely human and completely divine;
other groups insisted that Christ was completely human and not
at all divine; others maintained that he was completely divine and not
at all human; and yet others asserted that Jesus Christ was two
things—a divine being (Christ) and a human being (Jesus). Some of
these groups believed that Christ’s death brought about the salvation
of the world; others maintained that Christ’s death had nothing to do
with the salvation of this world; yet other groups insisted that Christ
had never actually died.
Each and every one of these viewpoints—and many others besides—
were topics of constant discussion, dialogue, and debate in the
early centuries of the church, while Christians of various persuasions
tried to convince others of the truth of their own claims. Only one
group eventually “won out” in these debates. It was this group that
Theologically Motivated Alterations of the Text 153
decided what the Christian creeds would be: the creeds would affirm
that there is only one God, the Creator; that Jesus his Son is both
human and divine; and that salvation came by his death and resurrection.
This was also the group that decided which books would be included
in the canon of scripture. By the end of the fourth century,
most Christians agreed that the canon was to include the four Gospels,
Acts, the letters of Paul, and a group of other letters such as 1 John
and 1 Peter, along with the Apocalypse of John. And who had been
copying these texts? Christians from the congregations themselves,
Christians who were intimately aware of and even involved in the debates
over the identity of God, the status of the Jewish scriptures, the
nature of Christ, and the effects of his death.
The group that established itself as “orthodox” (meaning that it
held what it considered to be the “right belief”) then determined what
future Christian generations would believe and read as scripture.
What should we call the “orthodox” views before they became the
majority opinion of all Christians? Possibly it is best to call them protoorthodox.
That is to say, they represented the views of the “orthodox”
Christians before this group had won its disputes by the early fourth
century or so.
Did these disputes affect the scribes as they reproduced their scriptures?
In this chapter I will be arguing that they did. To make the
point, I will restrict myself to just one aspect of the ongoing theological
disputes in the second and third centuries, the question over the nature
of Christ. Was he human? Was he divine? Was he both? If he was
both, was he two separate beings, one divine and one human? Or was
he one being who was simultaneously human and divine? These are
questions that were eventually resolved in the creeds that were formulated
and then handed down even till today, creeds that insist that
there is “one Lord Jesus Christ” who is both fully God and fully man.
Before these determinations came to be made, there were widespread
disagreements, and these disputes affected our texts of scripture.3
To illustrate this point I will consider three areas of the dispute
over Christ’s nature, looking at ways in which the texts of the books
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that were to become the New Testament came to be changed by (no
doubt) well-meaning scribes, who intentionally altered their texts in
order to make them more amenable to their own theological views,
and less amenable to the views of their theological opponents. The
first area I will consider involves the claim made by some Christians
that Jesus was so fully human that he could not be divine. This was
the view of a group of Christians that scholars today call the adoptionists.
My contention is that Christian scribes who opposed adoptionistic
views of Jesus modified their texts in places in order to stress their
view that Jesus was not just human, but also divine. We might call
these modifications antiadoptionistic alterations of scripture.
Antiadoptionistic Alterations of the Text
Early Christian Adoptionists
We know of a number of Christian groups from the second and third
centuries that had an “adoptionistic” view of Christ. This view is
called adoptionist because its adherents maintained that Jesus was not
divine but a full flesh-and-blood human being whom God had
“adopted” to be his son, usually at his baptism.4
One of the best-known early Christian groups who held to an
adoptionistic Christology was a sect of Jewish-Christians known as
the Ebionites. We aren’t sure why they were given this name. It may
have originated as a self-designation based on the Hebrew term Ebyon,
which means “poor.” These followers of Jesus may have imitated the
original band of Jesus’s disciples in giving up everything because of
their faith, and so taking upon themselves voluntary poverty for the
sake of others.
Wherever their name came from, the views of this group are
clearly reported in our early records, principally written by their enemies
who saw them as heretics. These followers of Jesus were, like
him, Jews; where they differed from other Christians was in their insistence
that to follow Jesus one had to be a Jew. For men, this meant
Theologically Motivated Alterations of the Text 155
becoming circumcised. For men and women, it meant following the
Jewish law given by Moses, including kosher food laws and the observance
of Sabbath and Jewish festivals.
In particular, it was their understanding of Jesus as the Jewish
messiah that set these Christians apart from others. For since they
were strict monotheists—believing that only One could be God—
they insisted that Jesus was not himself divine, but was a human being
no different in “nature” from the rest of us. He was born from the sexual
union of his parents, Joseph and Mary, born like everyone else (his
mother was not a virgin), and reared, then, in a Jewish home. What
made Jesus different from all others was that he was more righteous
in following the Jewish law; and because of his great righteousness,
God adopted him to be his son at his baptism, when a voice came from
heaven announcing that he was God’s son. From that moment on,
Jesus felt called to fulfill the mission God had allotted him—dying on
the cross, as a righteous sacrifice for the sins of others. This he did in
faithful obedience to his calling; God then honored this sacrifice by
raising Jesus from the dead and exalting him up to heaven, where he
still waits before returning as the judge of the earth.
According to the Ebionites, then, Jesus did not preexist; he was not
born of a virgin; he was not himself divine. He was a special, righteous
man, whom God had chosen and placed in a special relationship
to himself.
In response to these adoptionistic views, proto-orthodox Christians
insisted that Jesus was not “merely” human, but that he was actually
divine, in some sense God himself. He was born of a virgin, he
was more righteous than anyone else because he was different by nature,
and at his baptism God did not make him his son (via adoption)
but merely affirmed that he was his son, as he had been from eternity
past.
How did these disputes affect the texts of scripture that were in
circulation in the second and third centuries, texts being copied by
nonprofessional scribes who were themselves involved to a greater or
lesser degree in the controversies? There are very few, if any, variant
156 Misquoting Jesus
readings that appear to have been created by scribes who held to an
adoptionistic point of view. The reason for this lack of evidence
should not be surprising. If an adoptionistic Christian had inserted his
views into the texts of scripture, surely they would have been corrected
by later scribes who took a more orthodox line. What we do
find, however, are instances in which texts have been altered in such a
way as to oppose an adoptionistic Christology. These changes emphasize
that Jesus was born of a virgin, that he was not adopted at his baptism,
and that he was himself God.
Antiadoptionist Changes of the Text
We have, in fact, already seen one textual variation related to this
christological controversy, in our discussion in chapter 4 of the textual
researches of J. J. Wettstein. Wettstein examined the Codex Alexandrinus,
now in the British Library, and determined that in 1 Tim.
3:16, where most later manuscripts speak of Christ as “God made
manifest in the flesh,” this early manuscript originally spoke, instead,
of Christ “who was made manifest in the flesh.” The change is very
slight in Greek—it is the difference between a theta and an omicron,
which look very much alike ( and ). A later scribe had altered
the original reading, so that it no longer read “who” but “God” (made
manifest in the flesh). In other words, this later corrector changed the
text in such a way as to stress Christ’s divinity. It is striking to realize
that the same correction occurred in four of our other early manuscripts
of 1 Timothy, all of which have had correctors change the text
in the same way, so that it now explicitly calls Jesus “God.” This became
the text of the vast majority of later Byzantine (i.e., medieval)
manuscripts—and then became the text of most of the early English
translations.
Our earliest and best manuscripts, however, speak of Christ
“who” was made manifest in the flesh, without calling Jesus, explicitly,
God. The change that came to dominate the medieval manuscripts,
then, was made in order to emphasize Jesus’s divinity in a text
that was ambiguous about it, at best. This would be an example of an
Theologically Motivated Alterations of the Text 157
antiadoptionistic change, a textual alteration made to counter a claim
that Jesus was fully human but not himself divine.
Other antiadoptionistic changes took place in the manuscripts that
record Jesus’s early life in the Gospel of Luke. In one place we are told
that when Joseph and Mary took Jesus to the Temple and the holy
man Simeon blessed him, “his father and mother were marveling at
what was said to him” (Luke 2:33). His father? How could the text
call Joseph Jesus’s father if Jesus had been born of a virgin? Not surprisingly,
a large number of scribes changed the text to eliminate the
potential problem, by saying “Joseph and his mother were marveling.
. . .” Now the text could not be used by an adoptionist Christian
in support of the claim that Joseph was the child’s father.
A similar phenomenon happens a few verses later in the account of
Jesus as a twelve-year-old in the Temple. The story line is familiar:
Joseph, Mary, and Jesus attend a festival in Jerusalem, but then when
the rest of the family heads home in the caravan, Jesus remains behind,
unbeknownst to them. As the text says, “his parents did not know
about it.” But why does the text speak of his parents when Joseph is not
really his father? A number of textual witnesses “correct” the problem
by having the text read, “Joseph and his mother did not know it.” And
again, some verses later, after they return to Jerusalem to hunt high
and low for Jesus, Mary finds him, three days later, in the Temple. She
upbraids him: “Your father and I have been looking for you!” Once
again, some scribes solved the problem—this time by simply altering
the text to read “We have been looking for you!”
One of the most intriguing antiadoptionist variants among our manuscripts
occurs just where one might expect it, in an account of Jesus’s
baptism by John, the point at which many adoptionists insisted Jesus
had been chosen by God to be his adopted son. In Luke’s Gospel, as in
Mark, when Jesus is baptized, the heavens open up, the Spirit descends
upon Jesus in the form of a dove, and a voice comes from
heaven. But the manuscripts of Luke’s Gospel are divided concerning
what exactly the voice said. According to most of our manuscripts, it
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spoke the same words one finds in Mark’s account: “You are my
beloved Son in whom I am well pleased” (Mark 1:11; Luke 3:23). In
one early Greek manuscript and several Latin ones, however, the
voice says something strikingly different: “You are my Son, today I
have begotten you.” Today I have begotten you! Doesn’t that suggest
that his day of baptism is the day on which Jesus has become the Son
of God? Couldn’t this text be used by an adoptionist Christian to
make the point that Jesus became the Son of God at this time? As this
is such an interesting variant, we might do well to give it a more extended
consideration, as a further illustration of the complexities of
the problems that textual critics face.
The first issue to resolve is this: which of these two forms of the text
is original, and which represents the alteration? The vast majority of
Greek manuscripts have the first reading (“You are my beloved Son in
whom I am well pleased”); and so one might be tempted to see the
other reading as the alteration. The problem in this case is that the
verse was quoted a lot by early church fathers in the period before most
of our manuscripts were produced. It is quoted in the second and third
centuries everywhere from Rome, to Alexandria, to North Africa, to
Palestine, to Gaul, to Spain. And in almost every instance, it is the other
form of the text that is quoted (“Today I have begotten you”).
Moreover, this is the form of text that is more unlike what is found
in the parallel passage in Mark. As we have seen, scribes typically try to
harmonize texts rather than take them out of harmony; it is therefore
the form of the text that differs from Mark that is more likely to be
original to Luke. These arguments suggest that the less-attested reading—“
Today I have begotten you”—is indeed the original, and that it
came to be changed by scribes who feared its adoptionistic overtones.
Some scholars have taken the opposite view, however, by arguing
that Luke could not have had the voice at the baptism say “Today I
have begotten you” because it is already clear before this point in
Luke’s narrative that Jesus is the Son of God. Thus, in Luke 1:35, before
Jesus’s birth, the angel Gabriel announces to Jesus’s mother that
“the Holy Spirit shall come upon you and the Power of the Most High
Theologically Motivated Alterations of the Text 159
will overshadow you, therefore the one who is to be born of you shall
be called holy, the Son of God.” For Luke himself, in other words,
Jesus already was the Son of God at his birth. According to this argument,
Jesus could not be said to have become the Son of God at his
baptism—and so the more widely attested reading, “You are my
beloved Son in whom I am well pleased,” is probably original.
The difficulty with this line of thinking—as persuasive as it is at
first glance—is that it overlooks how Luke generally uses designations
of Jesus throughout his work (including not just the Gospel but
also the second volume of his writing, the book of Acts). Consider, for
example, what Luke says about Jesus as the “Messiah” (which is the
Hebrew word for the Greek term Christ). According to Luke 2:11,
Jesus was born as the Christ, but in one of the speeches in Acts, Jesus is
said to have become the Christ at his baptism (Acts 10:37–38); in another
passage Luke states that Jesus became the Christ at his resurrection
(Acts 2:38). How can all these things be true? It appears that for
Luke, it was important to emphasize the key moments of Jesus’s existence,
and to stress these as vital for Jesus’s identity (e.g., as Christ).
The same applies to Luke’s understanding of Jesus as the “Lord.” He
is said to have been born the Lord in Luke 2:11; and he is called the
Lord while living, in Luke 10:1; but Acts 2:38 indicates that he became
the Lord at his resurrection.
For Luke, Jesus’s identity as Lord, Christ, and Son of God is important.
But the time at which it happened, evidently, is not. Jesus is
all these things at crucial points of his life—birth, baptism, and resurrection,
for example.
It appears, then, that originally in Luke’s account of Jesus’s baptism,
the voice came from heaven to declare “You are my Son, today I
have begotten you.” Luke probably did not mean that to be interpreted
adoptionistically, since, after all, he had already narrated an account
of Jesus’s virgin birth (in chapters 1–2). But later Christians
reading Luke 3:22 may have been taken aback by its potential implications,
as it seems open to an adoptionistic interpretation. To prevent
anyone from taking the text that way, some proto-orthodox scribes
160 Misquoting Jesus
changed the text to make it stand in complete conformity with the
text of Mark 1:11. Now, rather than being said to have been begotten
by God, Jesus is simply affirmed: “You are my beloved Son in whom I
am well pleased.” This is, in other words, another antiadoptionistic
change of the text.
We will conclude this part of the discussion by looking at one other
such change. Like 1 Tim. 3:16, this one involves a text in which a
scribe has made an alteration to affirm in very strong terms that Jesus
is to be understood completely as God. The text occurs in the Gospel
of John, a Gospel that more than any of the others that made it into
the New Testament already goes a long way toward identifying Jesus
himself as divine (see, e.g., John 8:58; 10:30; 20:28). This identification
is made in a particularly striking way in a passage in which the original
text is hotly disputed.
The first eighteen verses of John are sometimes called its Prologue.
Here is where John speaks of the “Word of God” who was “in
the beginning with God” and who “was God” (vv. 1–3). This Word of
God made all things that exist. Moreover, it is God’s mode of communication
to the world; the Word is how God manifests himself to others.
And we are told that at one point the “Word became flesh and
dwelt among us.” In other words, God’s own Word became a human
being (v. 14). This human being was “Jesus Christ” (v. 17). According
to this understanding of things, then, Jesus Christ represents the “incarnation”
of God’s own Word, who was with God in the beginning
and was himself God, through whom God made all things.
The Prologue then ends with some striking words, which come in
two variant forms: “No one has seen God at any time, but the unique
Son/the unique God who is in the bosom of Father, that one has made
him known” (v. 18).
The textual problem has to do with the identification of this
“unique” one. Is he to be identified as the “unique God in the bosom
of the Father” or as the “unique Son in the bosom of the Father”? It
must be acknowledged that the first reading is the one found in the
Theologically Motivated Alterations of the Text 161
manuscripts that are the oldest and generally considered to be the
best—those of the Alexandrian textual family. But it is striking that it
is rarely found in manuscripts not associated with Alexandria. Could
it be a textual variant created by a scribe in Alexandria and popularized
there? If so, that would explain why the vast majority of manuscripts
from everywhere else have the other reading, in which Jesus is
not called the unique God, but the unique Son.
There are other reasons for thinking that the latter reading is, in
fact, the correct one. The Gospel of John uses this phrase “the unique
Son” (sometimes mistranslated as “only begotten Son”) on several
other occasions (see John 3:16, 18); nowhere else does it speak of Christ
as “the unique God.” Moreover, what would it even mean to call
Christ that? The term unique in Greek means “one of a kind.” There
can be only one who is one of a kind. The term unique God must refer
to God the Father himself—otherwise he is not unique. But if the
term refers to the Father, how can it be used of the Son? Given the
fact that the more common (and understandable) phrase in the Gospel
of John is “the unique Son,” it appears that that was the text originally
written in John 1:18. This itself is still a highly exalted view of Christ—
he is the “unique Son who is in the bosom of the Father.” And he is
the one who explains God to everyone else.
It appears, though, that some scribes—probably located in Alexandria—
were not content even with this exalted view of Christ, and
so they made it even more exalted, by transforming the text. Now
Christ is not merely God’s unique Son, he is the unique God himself!
This too, then, appears to be an antiadoptionistic change of the text
made by proto-orthodox scribes of the second century.
Antidocetic Alterations of the Text
Early Christian Docetists
Standing at the opposite end of the theological spectrum from the
Jewish-Christian Ebionites and their adoptionistic Christology were
162 Misquoting Jesus
groups of Christians known as docetists.5 The name comes from the
Greek word DOKE
–
O, which means “to seem” or “to appear.” Docetists
maintained that Jesus was not a full flesh-and-blood human
being. He was instead completely (and only) divine; he only “seemed”
or “appeared” to be a human being, to feel hunger, thirst, and pain, to
bleed, to die. Since Jesus was God, he could not really be a man. He
simply came to earth in the “appearance” of human flesh.
Probably the best-known docetist from the early centuries of
Christianity was the philosopher-teacher Marcion. We know a good
deal about Marcion because proto-orthodox church fathers such as
Irenaeus and Tertullian considered his views a real threat, and so wrote
extensively about them. In particular, we still have a five-volume work
by Tertullian called Against Marcion in which Marcion’s understanding
of the faith is detailed and attacked. From this polemical tractate
we are able to discern the major features of Marcion’s thought.
As we have seen,6 Marcion appears to have taken his cues from the
apostle Paul, whom he considered to be the one true follower of Jesus.
In some of his letters Paul differentiates between the Law and the
gospel, insisting that a person is made right with God by faith in
Christ (the gospel), not by performing the works of the Jewish law.
For Marcion, this contrast between the gospel of Christ and the Law
of Moses was absolute, so much so that the God who gave the Law obviously
could not be the one who gave the salvation of Christ. They
were, in other words, two different gods. The God of the Old Testament
was the one who created this world, chose Israel to be his people,
and gave them his harsh Law. When they break his Law (as they all
do), he punishes them with death. Jesus came from a greater God,
sent to save people from the wrathful God of the Jews. Since he did
not belong to this other God, who created the material world, Jesus
himself obviously could not be part of this material world. That
means, then, that he could not actually have been born, that he did not
have a material body, that he did not really bleed, that he did not really
die. All these things were an appearance. But since Jesus appeared
to die—an apparently perfect sacrifice—the God of the Jews accepted
Theologically Motivated Alterations of the Text 163
this death as payment for sins. Anyone who believes in it will be saved
from this God.
Proto-orthodox authors such as Tertullian objected strenuously to
this theology, insisting that if Christ was not an actual human being,
he could not save other human beings, that if he did not actually shed
blood, his blood could not bring salvation, that if he did not actually
die, his “apparent” death would do nobody any good. Tertullian and
others, then, took a strong stand that Jesus—while still divine (despite
what the Ebionites and other adoptionists said)—was nonetheless
fully human. He had flesh and blood; he could feel pain; he really
bled; he really died; he really, physically, was raised from the dead;
and he really, physically, ascended to heaven, where he is now waiting
to return, physically, in glory.
Antidocetic Changes of the Text
The debate over docetic Christologies affected the scribes who copied
the books that eventually became the New Testament. To illustrate
this point I will examine four textual variants in the final chapters of
the Gospel of Luke, which, as we have seen, was the one Gospel that
Marcion accepted as canonical scripture.7
The first involves a passage we also considered in chapter 5—the
account of Jesus’s “sweating blood.” As we saw there, the verses in question
were probably not original to Luke’s Gospel. Recall that the passage
describes events that take place immediately before Jesus’s arrest,
when he leaves his disciples to go off by himself to pray, asking that the
cup of his suffering be removed from him, but praying that God’s “will
be done.” Then, in some manuscripts, we read the disputed verses:
“And an angel from heaven appeared to him, strengthening him. And
being in agony he began to pray yet more fervently, and his sweat became
like drops of blood falling to the ground” (vv. 43–44).
I argued in chapter 5 that verses 43–44 disrupt the structure of this
passage in Luke, which is otherwise a chiasmus that focuses attention
on Jesus’s prayer for God’s will to be done. I also suggested that the
verses contain a theology completely unlike that otherwise found in
164 Misquoting Jesus
Luke’s Passion narrative. Everywhere else, Jesus is calm and in control
of his situation. Luke, in fact, has gone out of his way to remove
any indication of Jesus’s agony from the account. These verses, then,
not only are missing from important and early witnesses, they also
run counter to the portrayal of Jesus facing his death otherwise found
in Luke’s Gospel.
Why, though, did scribes add them to the account? We are now in
a position to answer that question. It is notable that these verses are alluded
to three times by proto-orthodox authors of the mid to late second
century (Justin Martyr, Irenaeus of Gaul, and Hippolytus of
Rome); and what is more intriguing still, each time they are mentioned
it is in order to counter the view that Jesus was not a real
human being. That is, the deep anguish that Jesus experiences according
to these verses was taken to show that he really was a human
being, that he really could suffer like the rest of us. Thus, for example,
the early Christian apologist Justin, after observing that “his sweat fell
down like drops of blood while he was praying,” claims that this
showed “that the Father wished his Son really to undergo such sufferings
for our sakes,” so that we “may not say that he, being the Son of
God, did not feel what was happening to him and inflicted on him.”8
In other words, Justin and his proto-orthodox colleagues understood
that the verses showed in graphic form that Jesus did not merely
“appear” to be human: he really was human, in every way. It seems
likely, then, that since, as we have seen, these verses were not originally
part of the Gospel of Luke, they were added for an antidocetic
purpose, because they portrayed so well the real humanity of Jesus.
For proto-orthodox Christians, it was important to emphasize that
Christ was a real man of flesh and blood because it was precisely the
sacrifice of his flesh and the shedding of his blood that brought salvation—
not in appearance but in reality. Another textual variant in
Luke’s account of Jesus’s final hours emphasizes this reality. It occurs in
the account of Jesus’s last supper with his disciples. In one of our oldest
Greek manuscripts, as well as in several Latin witnesses, we are told:
Theologically Motivated Alterations of the Text 165
And taking a cup, giving thanks, he said, “Take this and divide it
among yourselves, for I say to you that I will not drink from the fruit
of the vine from now on, until the kingdom of God comes.” And
taking bread, giving thanks, he broke it and gave it to them, saying,
“This is my body. But behold, the hand of the one who betrays me is
with me at the table.” (Luke 22:17–19)
In most of our manuscripts, however, there is an addition to the
text, an addition that will sound familiar to many readers of the English
Bible, since it has made its way into most modern translations.
Here, after Jesus says “This is my body,” he continues with the words
“‘which has been given for you; do this in remembrance of me’; And
the cup likewise after supper, saying ‘this cup is the new covenant in
my blood which is shed for you.’”
These are the familiar words of the “institution” of the Lord’s
Supper, known in a very similar form also from Paul’s first letter to
the Corinthians (1 Cor. 11:23–25). Despite the fact that they are familiar,
there are good reasons for thinking that these verses were not
originally in Luke’s Gospel but were added to stress that it was Jesus’s
broken body and shed blood that brought salvation “for you.” For one
thing, it is hard to explain why a scribe would have omitted the verses
if they were original to Luke (there is no homoeoteleuton, for example,
that would explain an omission), especially since they make such
clear and smooth sense when they are added. In fact, when the verses
are taken away, most people find that the text sounds a bit truncated.
The unfamiliarity of the truncated version (without the verses) may
have been what led scribes to add the verses.
Moreover, it should be noted that the verses, as familiar as they
are, do not represent Luke’s own understanding of the death of Jesus.
For it is a striking feature of Luke’s portrayal of Jesus’s death—this
may sound strange at first—that he never, anywhere else, indicates
that the death itself is what brings salvation from sin. Nowhere in
Luke’s entire two-volume work (Luke and Acts), is Jesus’s death said
to be “for you.” In fact, on the two occasions in which Luke’s source
(Mark) indicates that it was by Jesus’s death that salvation came (Mark
166 Misquoting Jesus
10:45; 15:39), Luke changed the wording of the text (or eliminated it).
Luke, in other words, has a different understanding of the way in
which Jesus’s death leads to salvation than does Mark (and Paul, and
other early Christian writers).
It is easy to see Luke’s own distinctive view by considering what
he has to say in the book of Acts, where the apostles give a number
of speeches in order to convert others to the faith. In none of these
speeches, though, do the apostles indicate that Jesus’s death brings
atonement for sins (e.g., in chapters 3, 4, 13). It is not that Jesus’s death
is unimportant. It is extremely important for Luke—but not as an
atonement. Instead, Jesus’s death is what makes people realize their
guilt before God (since he died even though he was innocent). Once
people recognize their guilt, they turn to God in repentance, and then
he forgives their sins.
Jesus’s death for Luke, in other words, drives people to repentance,
and it is this repentance that brings salvation. But not according
to these disputed verses that are missing from some of our early witnesses:
here Jesus’s death is portrayed as an atonement “for you.”
Originally the verses appear not to have been part of Luke’s
Gospel. Why, then, were they added? In a later dispute with Marcion,
Tertullian emphasized:
Jesus declared plainly enough what he meant by the bread, when he
called the bread his own body. He likewise, when mentioning the cup
and making the new testament to be sealed in his blood, affirms the
reality of his body. For no blood can belong to a body which is not a
body of flesh. Thus from the evidence of the flesh we get a proof of
the body, and a proof of the flesh from the evidence of the blood.
(Against Marcion 4, 40)
It appears that the verses were added to stress Jesus’s real body and
flesh, which he really sacrificed for the sake of others. This may not
have been Luke’s own emphasis, but it certainly was the emphasis of
the proto-orthodox scribes who altered their text of Luke in order to
counter docetic Christologies such as that of Marcion.9
Theologically Motivated Alterations of the Text 167
. . .
Another verse that appears to have been added to Luke’s Gospel by
proto-orthodox scribes is Luke 24:12, which occurs just after Jesus has
been raised from the dead. Some of Jesus’s women followers go to the
tomb, find that he is not there, and are told that he has been raised.
They go back to tell the disciples, who refuse to believe them because
it strikes them as a “silly tale.” Then, in many manuscripts, occurs the
account of 24:12: “But Peter, rising up, ran to the tomb, and stooping
down he saw the linen cloths alone, and he returned home marveling
at what had happened.”
There are excellent reasons for thinking that this verse was not
originally part of Luke’s Gospel. It contains a large number of stylistic
features found nowhere else in Luke, including most of the key words
of the text, for example, “stooping down” and “linen cloths” (a different
word was used for Jesus’s burial cloths earlier in the account).
Moreover, it is hard to see why someone would want to remove this
verse, if it actually formed part of the Gospel (again, there is no homoeoteleuton,
etc., to account for an accidental omission). As many
readers have noted, the verse sounds very much like a summary of an
account in the Gospel of John (20:3–10), where Peter and the “beloved
disciple” race to the tomb and find it empty. Could it be that someone
has added a similar account, in summary fashion, to Luke’s Gospel?
If so, it is a striking addition, because it supports so well the protoorthodox
position that Jesus was not simply some kind of phantasm
but had a real, physical body. Moreover, this was recognized by the
chief apostle, Peter, himself. Thus, rather than letting the story of
the empty tomb remain a “silly tale” of some untrustworthy women, the
text now shows that the story was not just believable but true: as verified
by none other than Peter (a trustworthy man, one might suppose).
Even more important, the verse stresses the physical nature of the resurrection,
because the only thing left in the tomb is the physical proof
of the resurrection: the linen cloths that had covered Jesus’s body.
This was a fleshly resurrection of a real person. The importance of
this point is made, once again, by Tertullian:
168 Misquoting Jesus
Now if [Christ’s] death be denied, because of the denial of his flesh,
there will be no certainty of his resurrection. For he rose not, for the
very same reason that he died not, even because he possessed not the
reality of the flesh, to which as death accrues, so does resurrection
likewise. Similarly, if Christ’s resurrection be nullified, ours also is
destroyed. (Against Marcion 3, 8)
Christ must have had a real fleshly body, which was really raised,
physically, from the dead.
Not only did Jesus physically suffer and die, and physically come to be
raised: for the proto-orthodox he was also physically exalted to
heaven. A final textual variant to consider comes at the end of Luke’s
Gospel, after the resurrection has occurred (but on the same day).
Jesus has spoken to his followers for the last time, and then departs
from them:
And it happened that while he was blessing them, he was removed
from them; and they returned into Jerusalem with great joy. (Luke
24:51–52)
It is interesting to note, however, that in some of our earliest witnesses—
including the Alexandrian manuscript Codex Sinaiticus—
there is an addition to the text.10 After it indicates that “he was
removed from them,” in these manuscripts it states “and he was taken
up into heaven.” This is a significant addition because it stresses the
physicality of Jesus’s departure at his ascension (rather than the bland
“he was removed”). In part, this is an intriguing variant because the
same author, Luke, in his second volume, the book of Acts, again narrates
Jesus’s ascension into heaven, but explicitly states that it took
place “forty days” after the resurrection (Acts 1:1–11).
This makes it difficult to believe that Luke wrote the phrase in
question in Luke 24:51—since surely he would not think Jesus ascended
to heaven on the day of his resurrection if he indicates at the
beginning of his second volume that he ascended forty days later. It is
Theologically Motivated Alterations of the Text 169
noteworthy, too, that the key word in question (“was taken up”) never
occurs anywhere else in either the Gospel of Luke or the book of Acts.
Why might someone have added these words? We know that
proto-orthodox Christians wanted to stress the real, physical nature of
Jesus’s departure from earth: Jesus physically left, and will physically
return, bringing with him physical salvation. This they argued
against docetists, who maintained that it was all only an appearance.
It may be that a scribe involved in these controversies modified his text
in order to stress the point.
Antiseparationist Alterations of the Text
Early Christian Separationists
A third area of concern to proto-orthodox Christians of the second
and third centuries involved Christian groups who understood Christ
not as only human (like the adoptionists) and not as only divine (like
the docetists) but as two beings, one completely human and one completely
divine.11We might call this a “separationist” Christology because
it divided Jesus Christ into two: the man Jesus (who was completely
human) and the divine Christ (who was completely divine). According
to most proponents of this view, the man Jesus was temporarily
indwelt by the divine being, Christ, enabling him to perform his miracles
and deliver his teachings; but before Jesus’s death, the Christ
abandoned him, forcing him to face his crucifixion alone.
This separationist Christology was most commonly advocated by
groups of Christians that scholars have called Gnostic.12 The term
Gnosticism comes from the Greek word for knowledge, gnosis. It is
applied to a wide range of groups of early Christians who stressed the
importance of secret knowledge for salvation. According to most of
these groups, the material world we live in was not the creation of the
one true God. It came about as a result of a disaster in the divine
realm, in which one of the (many) divine beings was for some mysterious
reason excluded from the heavenly places; as a result of her fall
170 Misquoting Jesus
from divinity the material world came to be created by a lesser deity,
who captured her and imprisoned her in human bodies here on earth.
Some human beings thus have a spark of the divine within them, and
they need to learn the truth of who they are, where they came from,
how they got here, and how they can return. Learning this truth will
lead to their salvation.
This truth consists of secret teachings, mysterious “knowledge”
(gnosis), which can only be imparted by a divine being from the heavenly
realm. For Christian Gnostics, Christ is this divine revealer of the
truths of salvation; in many Gnostic systems, the Christ came into the
man Jesus at his baptism, empowered him for his ministry, and then
at the end left him to die on the cross. That is why Jesus cried out, “My
God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” For these Gnostics, the
Christ literally had forsaken Jesus (or “left him behind”). After Jesus’s
death, though, he raised him from the dead as a reward for his faithfulness,
and continued through him to teach his disciples the secret
truths that can lead to salvation.
Proto-orthodox Christians found this teaching offensive on just
about every level. For them, the material world is not an evil place
that resulted from a cosmic disaster, but is the good creation of the one
true God. For them, salvation comes by faith in Christ’s death and
resurrection, not by learning the secret gnosis that can illuminate the
truth of the human condition. And most important for our purposes
here, for them, Jesus Christ is not two beings, but one being, both divine
and human, at one and the same time.
Antiseparationist Changes of the Text
The controversies over separationist Christologies played some role in
the transmission of the texts that were to become the New Testament.
We have seen one instance already in a variant we considered in chapter
5, Hebrews 2:9, in which Jesus was said, in the original text of the letter,
to have died “apart from God.” In that discussion, we saw that most
scribes had accepted the variant reading, which indicated that Christ
died “by the grace of God,” even though that was not the text that the
Theologically Motivated Alterations of the Text 171
author originally wrote. But we did not consider at any length the
question of why scribes might have found the original text potentially
dangerous and therefore worth modifying. Now, with this brief background
to Gnostic understandings of Christ, the change makes better
sense. For according to separationist Christologies, Christ really did die
“apart from God,” in that it was at his cross that the divine element that
had indwelt him removed itself, so that Jesus died alone. Aware that the
text could be used to support such a view, Christian scribes made a simple
but profound change. Now rather than indicating that his death
came apart from God, the text affirmed that Christ’s death was “by the
grace of God.” This, then, is an antiseparationist alteration.
A second intriguing example of the phenomenon occurs almost
exactly where one might expect to find it, in a Gospel account of Jesus’s
crucifixion. As I have already indicated, in Mark’s Gospel Jesus is silent
throughout the entire proceeding of his crucifixion. The soldiers crucify
him, the passers-by and Jewish leaders mock him, as do the two
criminals who are crucified with him; and he says not a word—until
the very end, when death is near, and Jesus cries out the words taken
from Psalm 22: “Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani,” which translated
means ”My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” (Mark 15:34).
It is interesting to note that according to the proto-orthodox writer
Irenaeus, Mark was the Gospel of choice for those “who separated
Jesus from the Christ”—that is, for Gnostics who embraced a separationist
Christology.13 We have solid evidence to suggest that some
Gnostics took this last saying of Jesus literally, to indicate that it was at
this point that the divine Christ departed from Jesus (since divinity
cannot experience mortality and death). The evidence comes from
Gnostic documents that reflect on the significance of this moment in
Jesus’s life. Thus, for example, the apocryphal Gospel of Peter, which
some have suspected of having a separationist Christology, quotes the
words in a slightly different form, “My power, O power, you have left
me!” Even more striking is the Gnostic text known as the Gospel of
Philip, in which the verse is quoted and then given a separationist
interpretation:
172 Misquoting Jesus
“My God, my God, why O Lord have you forsaken me?” For it was
on the cross that he said these words, for it was there that he was
divided.
Proto-orthodox Christians knew of both these Gospels and their
interpretations of this climactic moment of Jesus’s crucifixion. It is
perhaps no great surprise, then, that the text of Mark’s Gospel was
changed by some scribes in a way that would have circumvented this
Gnostic explanation. In one Greek manuscript and several Latin witnesses,
Jesus is said not to call out the traditional “cry of dereliction”
from Psalm 22, but instead to cry out, “My God, my God, why have
you mocked me?”
This change of the text makes for an interesting reading—and
one particularly suited to its literary context. For as already indicated,
nearly everyone else in the story has mocked Jesus at this point—the
Jewish leaders, the passers-by, and both robbers. Now, with this variant
reading, even God himself is said to have mocked Jesus. In despair,
Jesus then utters a loud cry and dies. This is a powerful scene, filled
with pathos.
Nonetheless the reading is not original, as shown by the circumstance
that it is lacking in nearly all our oldest and best witnesses (including
those of the Alexandrian text) as well as by the fact that it does
not correspond to the Aramaic words Jesus actually utters (lema
sabachthani—which mean “why have you forsaken me,” not “why
have you mocked me”).
Why, then, did scribes alter the text? Given its usefulness for those
arguing in favor of a separationist Christology, there can be little
question why. Proto-orthodox scribes were concerned that the text
not be used against them by their Gnostic opponents. They made an
important, and contextually suitable change, so that now rather than
abandoning Jesus, God is said to have mocked him.
As a final example of a variant of this kind, made in order to counter
a separationist Christology, we might consider a passage that occurs in
the Epistle of 1 John. In the oldest form of the text of 4:2–3, we are told:
Theologically Motivated Alterations of the Text 173
By this you know the Spirit of God. Every spirit that confesses that
Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God; and every spirit that does
not confess Jesus is not from God. This is the spirit of the anti-Christ.
This is a clear, straightforward passage: only those who acknowledge
that Jesus really came in the flesh (as opposed, say, to accepting
the docetist view) belong to God; those who do not acknowledge this
are opposed to Christ (anti-Christs). But there is an interesting textual
variant that occurs in the second half of the passage. Instead of referring
to the one “that does not confess Jesus,” several witnesses refer instead
to the one “that looses Jesus.” What does that mean—looses
Jesus—and why did this textual variant make its way into some manuscripts?
To start with, I should stress that it is not in very many manuscripts.
In fact, among the Greek witnesses it occurs only in the margin
of one tenth-century manuscript (Ms. 1739). But this, as we have
seen, is a remarkable manuscript because it appears to have been
copied from one of the fourth century, and its marginal notes record
the names of church fathers who had different readings for certain
parts of the text. In this particular instance, the marginal note indicates
that the reading “looses Jesus” was known to several latesecond-
and early-third-century church fathers, Irenaeus, Clement,
and Origen. Moreover, it appears in the Latin Vulgate. Among other
things, this shows that the variant was popular during the time in
which proto-orthodox Christians were debating with Gnostics over
matters of Christology.
Still, the variant probably cannot be accepted as the “original” text,
given its sparse attestation—it is not found, for example, in any of our
earliest and best manuscripts (in fact, not in any Greek manuscript except
for this one marginal note). Why, though, would it have been
created by a Christian scribe? It appears to have been created to provide
a “biblical” attack on separationist Christologies, in which Jesus
and Christ are divided from each other into separate entities, or as this
174 Misquoting Jesus
variant would have it, in which Jesus is “loosed” from the Christ.
Anyone who supports such a view, the textual variant suggests, is not
from God, but is in fact an anti-Christ. Once again, then, we have a
variant that was generated in the context of the christological disputes
of the second and third centuries.
Conclusion
One of the factors contributing to scribes’ alterations of their texts was
their own historical context. Christian scribes of the second and third
centuries were involved with the debates and disputes of their day,
and occasionally these disputes affected the reproduction of the texts
over which the debates raged. That is, scribes occasionally altered
their texts to make them say what they were already believed to mean.
This is not necessarily a bad thing, since we can probably assume
that most scribes who changed their texts often did so either semiconsciously
or with good intent. The reality, though, is that once they altered
their texts, the words of the texts quite literally became different
words, and these altered words necessarily affected the interpretations
of the words by later readers. Among the reasons for these alterations
were the theological disputes of the second and third centuries,
as scribes sometimes modified their texts in light of the adoptionistic,
docetic, and separationist Christologies that were vying for attention
in the period.
Other historical factors were also at work, factors relating less to
theological controversy and more to social conflicts of the day, conflicts
involving such things as the role of women in early Christian
churches, the Christian opposition to Jews, and the Christian defense
against attacks by pagan opponents. In the next chapter we will see
how these other social conflicts affected the early scribes who reproduced
the texts of scripture in the centuries before the copying of texts
became the province of professional scribes.
Theologically Motivated Alterations of the Text 175