Destroying trinity
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.Isaiah 44:6 “ {I am the first and I am the last; apart from me there is no God.}”.. All this means is that he tells the future before it happens ( the beginning) and tells how the future will end (the ending).
“I, the LORD, am the one, and I won't give my name and glory to another, nor my praise to idols” (Isaiah 42:8).
Exodus 34:14 - God is Jealous God
#no apart of me there is no God .
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Destroying God dewll in human body
Bible
God is not a man (Hosea:11:9)
Jesus is a man (John:8:40).
And God does not change himeself Malachi 3:6 King James Version (KJV) 6 For I am the Lord, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed.
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Destroying God has a son
God is spirit. John 4:24
Jesus is body
Luke 24:39 and John 4:24 Luke 24:39 Look at my hands and my feet. It is I myself! Touch me and see; a ghost does not have flesh and bones, as you see I have.; In the verse above, Jesus said he is not a spirit because spirit has neither flesh nor bones as he himself has
John 3:6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
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الرب واحد ولا يتغير وليس إنسان
Bible says :
1_ God is ONE ( Deuteronomy 6:4, Mark 12:29, John 17:3)
2_God is not a human being ( Numbers 23:19, Hosea 11:9, John 4:24)
3_ No one is like God (Isaiah 40:18&25, Isaiah 46:9-10)
4_God doesn't change ( Malachi 3:6).So did He change and become a man?
5_ God is Immortal.(1 Timothy 1:17)
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آيات لتفنيد الثالوث
Where are the Son and the Holy Spirit in the following verses?
Isaiah 46:9:- "Remember the former things of Old, I am God and there is no other, l am God and there is none like me."
Isaiah, 44:8 "Fear not, nor be afraid have l not told you from of Old and declared it unto you? And you are my witness.
Is there a God besides me?There is god,: l know not any."
Isaiah, 42:8-3:- "l am the Lord: ??That my name and my glory will l not give to another, Neither my praise to graven images. Behold, The former things are come to pass, And new things declared. Before They spring forth l tell you of them."
Isaiah, 46:5:- "To whom will ye like me, And make me equal and compare. Me, That we may be alike",
Isaiah, 45:14-15 :-"........ "Surely God died in thee, And there is none else.There is no God besides thee, Verily, thou art a God that hides himself,
O God of Israel, saviour."
From the the above mentioned chapters and Verses of the Book of the prophet lsaiah, One can be able to understand that, The Bible expresses the oneness of God contrary to the dogma of TRINITY.
In the same Book of lsaiah, God had expressed His unique power to do anything He wishes as well as His uniqueness in knowing the hidden things and the future.
He also declared that He had no equal in His Actions and Attributes and that He ALONE created the Universe.
The above verses clearly show that Jon's 1 John 5:7 KJV that God, Jesus and Holy Spirit are one is fake and false.If one insists that they are one, then they are one what?
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Responding to verses that most commonly used by Christians to prove Trinity
??1_Responding to verse Matthew[3:16] used to prove Trinity.
This is a common verse also used by Christians to prove Trinity
And Jesus when he was baptized, went up straightway from the water: and lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending as a dove, and coming upon him; (Matthew 3:16)
Actually it is not clear how this verse proves the Trinity, it doesn’t say that the 3 persons are one, all what it says is that they were present with each other for a moment; neither it says that the Son or the Holy Spirit are God.
Responding to verse Genesis 1:26 used to prove Trinity as God used the plural form when talking about himself.
Genesis 1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness.
Actually using the plural is not a proof that God is more than one person. This has been a language commonly used by kings as a way of glorifying, which was called “the royal we” or majestic plural (pluralis majestatis in Latin, literally, “the plural of majesty”), which is the use of a plural pronoun (or corresponding plural-inflected verb forms) to refer to a single person holding a high office, such as a sovereign (eg, a monarch) or religious leader (eg, the Pope).(Source here). No one said that these kings or popes who used this form are 3 persons in one human being. However it was understood that it was just for glorification.
Same thing applies here on God in Genesis 1:27 and the next verse prove that it is just related to glorification not to physical three persons:
Genesis 1:27 And God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.
If Genesis 1:26 really mean the trinity, Genesis 1:27 would have been like that: “And God created man in their own image” for the verses to be consistent. Otherwise, this proves that the former verse was just used for glorifying, otherwise this will mean that the other two persons went away, and only one person remained of whom man was created on his image.
Also using the word Elohim for God which is a plural form in Hebrew is commonly cited by Christians to prove that. However, if this is considered to be a proof for the trinity, then we would say that Moses as well is a trinity as Exodus 7:1 uses the word Elohim when it says that Moses is a god to the Pharoah:
Exodus 7:1 And the LORD said to Moses, See, I have made you a god (elohim) to Pharaoh: and Aaron your brother shall be your prophet.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Royal_we
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Responding to Baptismal verse used also to prove Trinity.
Baptismal Formula
The baptismal formula is frequently used as a proof that God is a trinity where Jesus said to his disciples:
Mat 28:19 Go ye therefore, and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them into the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit:
There are some comments on this verse:
The verse doesn’t say that the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost are one, all what it said is to baptize people in the name of the 3 of them. Saying name not names doesn’t mean that the 3 are one. When a leader tells his soldiers: “fight your enemies in the name of the country the people and the king” doesn’t mean that the 3 are one. Otherwise, if we used the same way, we can have another Trinity from the Bible:
1Timothy 5:21 I charge you in the sight of God, and Christ Jesus, and the elect angels, that thou observe these things without prejudice, doing nothing by partiality.
It is the first time to hear that the elect angels became the third person in the Trinity and it didn’t say “in the sights” but rather “in the sight”. So if Matthew 28:19 really meant that the Father, son and holy spirit are one God, then 1 Timothy 5:21 tells that the third person of the trinity would be the elect angels not the holy spirit.
The apostles didn't respond to what Jesus ordered in this verse, since the baptismal formula was never told that way by the apostles, but they were always baptizing people in the name of Jesus, and they were baptizing the Jews only not the gentiles, only Paul and Baranabas (who were not present when Jesus said the above) baptized the gentiles.There is a problem in the canonicity of the verse itself as Eusebius quoted it, “Go ye and make disciples of all the nations in my name.” (Church history 3.5.2). Basil said that he knew nothing about it:
”Of the rest I say nothing; but of the very confession of our faith in Father, Son, and Holy Ghost, what is the written source? If it be granted that, as we are baptized, so also under the obligation to believe, we make our confession in like terms as our baptism, in accordance with the tradition of our baptism and in conformity with the principles of true religion.
https://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf208.vii.xxviii.html
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عيسي ليس بروح والرب روح كما يقال في الإنجيل.
Luke 24:39 and John 4:24
Luke 24:39 "Look at my hands and my feet. It is I myself! Touch me and see; a ghost does not have flesh and bones, as you see I have."
In the verse above, Jesus said he is not a spirit because spirit has neither flesh nor bones as he himself has.
BIble says God is spirit
John, in his John 4:24 said God is a spirit, how can Jesus then be God (John 1:1-14, Philippians 2:6-7 and 1 John 5:7 KJV)?!
So
If Jesus died on the cross, It means the Father and the Holy Ghost also died since they are ONE . Is that True?
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#Man_made_corruption inserted into the #Bible:
1John 5:7
The only verses in the whole Bible that explicitly ties God, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit in one "Triune" being is the verse of 1 John 5:7
"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."
This is the type of clear, decisive, and to-the-point verse I have been asking for. However, as I would later find out, this verse is now universally recognized as being a later "insertion" of the Church and all recent versions of the Bible, such as the Revised Standard Version the New Revised Standard Version, the New American Standard Bible, the New English Bible, the Phillips Modern English Bible ...etc. have all unceremoniously expunged this verse from their pages. Why is this? The scripture translator Benjamin Wilson gives the following explanation for this action in his "Emphatic Diaglott." Mr. Wilson says:
"This text concerning the heavenly witness is not contained in any Greek manuscript which was written earlier than the fifteenth century. It is not cited by any of the ecclesiastical writers; not by any of early Latin fathers even when the subjects upon which they treated would naturally have lead them to appeal to it's authority. It is therefore evidently spurious."
Others, such as the late Dr. Herbert W. Armstrong argued that this verse was added to the Latin Vulgate edition of the Bible during the heat of the controversy between Rome, Arius, and God's people. Whatever the reason, this verse is now universally recognized as an insertion and discarded. Since the Bible contains no verses validating a "Trinity" therefore, centuries after the departure of Jesus, God chose to inspire someone to insert this verse in order to clarify the true nature of God as being a "Trinity." Notice how mankind was being inspired as to how to "clarify" the Bible centuries after the departure of Jesus (pbuh). People continued to put words in the mouths of Jesus, his disciples, and even God himself with no reservations whatsoever. They were being "inspired".
If these people were being "inspired" by God, I wondered, then why did they need to put these words into other people's mouths (in our example, in the mouth of John). Why did they not just openly say "God inspired me and I will add a chapter to the Bible in my name"? Also, why did God need to wait till after the departure of Jesus to "inspire" his "true" nature? Why not let Jesus (pbuh) say it himself?
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According to Trinitarians the being known as the Holy Spirit is God. As such, if the Holy Spirit is God, then the Holy Spirit would have all the attributes of God, such as being all-knowing.
However so when one reads the Bible, the Gospels specifically, one will actually find that the Holy Spirit is not all-knowing, and this is obviously a problem because if the Holy Spirit is not all-knowing then how can the Holy Spirit be God?
We shall highlight two pieces of evidence that prove that the Holy Spirit is not all knowing, thus showing that the Holy Spirit cannot be God, unless Trinitarians want to tell us that it’s okay for God to not be perfect in his knowledge?
Our first piece of evidence comes from the Gospel of Matthew chapter 11 verse 27 which says:
"All things have been handed over to Me by My Father; and no one knows the Son except the Father; nor does anyone know the Father except the Son, and anyone to whom the Son wills to reveal Him"
Here we have Jesus saying that no one knows the Father except Jesus, this obviously means the Holy Spirit doesn't know the Father since the Holy Spirit isn't Jesus. Jesus goes on to say that no one knows the Son except the Father, once again this shows that the Holy Spirit does not know the Son neither, so not only does the Holy Spirit not know the Father, he doesn't know the Son neither!
If the Holy Spirit was all-knowing you would expect it to know both the Father and Son, however so Jesus is clear that he is the only one who knows the Father, and that the Father is the only one who knows him.
The problem increases when you consider the Trinity, according to Trinitarians the Trinity is made up of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. So how is it possible that one of those entities within the Trinity, namely the Holy Spirit, doesn’t know the other 2 figures as Jesus says?
Our second evidence comes from Matthew chapter 24, verse 36 that reads:
But of that day and hour knoweth no [man], no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
So as you can see Jesus says that only the Father knows the last hour, this obviously excludes everyone else who isn't the Father since only means only, if only Jack knows something specific then that means only Jack knows and not Bob and Harry!
So the Holy Spirit doesn’t know when the last hour will occur, thereby proving the Holy Spirit isn’t all-knowing and therefore cannot be God, how much sense does it make for God to not know when the end will come?
JESUS Said:That day and hour of which no one Knows not even the angels in heaven nor the Son but only the Father Knows .
Mark 13:32
If the Father and the son are same And One God Why doesn't Jesus know?!!
How is he a God when he said himself that he was sent only to the Jews?!?!
Matthew 15:24
He answered I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel ??!!