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Who Invented Jesus as the "Son of God"?
Evidence and Historical Debate, Between Metaphors and Realities: The Truth About the Title "Son of God"
Is Christ the Son of God?
Let's start from the beginning. No biblical scholar in the world would say that the Bible was written by Jesus himself.
Jesus Christ did not write his own history. He left no writings or eyewitness accounts. The Gospels began to be written 40 years after Jesus' ministry.
There is no evidence that any book of the Bible, including the Gospels, was written by Jesus' disciples.
We know that Jesus spoke Aramaic, not Greek, as did his disciples.
The Gospels were written in Greek, not Aramaic, the language of Christ and the disciples. This is important, as the language of the oldest manuscripts of the New Testament is not Aramaic, but Greek.
How was the New Testament written in a language they did not speak or understand well?
The first disciples of Christ were fishermen from Galilee, generally illiterate.
Contemporary scholars agree that the Gospels do not date from the time of Christ. Most were written between 70 and 120 AD, decades after Jesus' ministry.
None of the authors of the Gospels was an eyewitness to the events they describe. These names were assigned later.
None of the authors of the Gospels claimed to be an eyewitness.
Nor did any of the authors of the Gospels claim that their work was a divine revelation.
We will notice that each Gospel begins with an introduction: "according to..." such as "The Gospel according to Matthew," "The Gospel according to Luke," etc. However, none of the four thousand supposedly existing copies bears the signature of its author.
Second: Jesus cannot logically be the son of God in a literal sense.
The Oxford Dictionary of the Jewish Religion confirms this in Jewish idiom, clarifying that the title "Son of God" is clearly metaphorical. That is, the term "Son of God" is found occasionally in Jewish literature, biblical and post-biblical, but not implying the physical descent of any part of the Deity. The comments of the Dictionary of the Bible are eloquent.
No legitimate Christian sect suggests that God took a wife and had a son,
and certainly no one conceives that God fathered a child through a human mother outside of marriage.
Moreover, suggesting that God had sexual relations with an element of His creation is far beyond the bounds of religious tolerance, and undoubtedly this statement would be considered by all a terrible blasphemy, possibly taken from Greek mythology.
The Use of "Son of Man" in the Gospels
Jesus refers to himself as "Son of Man." Jesus never proclaimed himself as the "Son" of God in the Gospels.
The Synoptic Gospels and the Gospel of John contain references to Jesus using the title "Son of Man," a designation that appears around 88 times in the New Testament. This expression has deep roots in Jewish literature, particularly in the book of Daniel, where a messianic figure is alluded to with this same designation. By choosing this title, Jesus emphasizes his fully human identity.
The Quran confirms the humanity of Christ.
Throughout the Quran, it is affirmed that Jesus was a Prophet, of a completely human nature, sent to the Jews to return them to the Message of Moses.
God Almighty says in the Holy Quran:
".75) The Messiah, son of Mary, was not but a messenger; [other] messengers have passed on before him. And his mother was a supporter of truth. They both used to eat food. Look how We make clear to them the signs; then look how they are deluded.
76) Say, "Do you worship besides Allah that which that which holds for you no [power of] harm or benefit while it is Allah who is the Hearing, the Knowing?"
77) Say, "O People of the Scripture, do not exceed limits in your religion beyond the truth and do not follow the inclinations of a people who had gone astray before and misled many and have strayed from the soundness of the way."
The Holy Quran (5:75-77).
God Himself denounces beliefs that are contrary to His true essence:
" 88) And they say, "The Most Merciful has taken [for Himself] a son."
89) You have done an atrocious thing.
90) The heavens almost rupture therefrom and the earth splits open and the mountains collapse in devastation
91) That they attribute to the Most Merciful a son.
92) And it is not appropriate for the Most Merciful that He should take a son.
93) There is no one in the heavens and earth but that he comes to the Most Merciful as a servant.
94) He has enumerated them and counted them a [full] counting.
95) And all of them are coming to Him on the Day of Resurrection alone.
96) Indeed, those who have believed and done righteous deeds – the Most Merciful will appoint for them affection.
97) So, [O Muhammad], We have only made it [i.e., the Qur'an] easy in your tongue [i.e., the Arabic language] that you may give good tidings thereby to righteous and warn thereby a hostile people. "
The Holy Quran (19:88-97).
God Almighty says in the Holy Quran :
111) And say, "Praise to Allah, who has not taken a son and has had no partner in [His] dominion and has no [need of a] protector out of weakness; and magnify Him with [great] magnification."
The Holy Quran (17 :111).
Jesus defines himself as the "Son of David."
Jesus identifies himself as the "Son of David" fourteen times in the New Testament.
Just as Jesus is not the son of David in a literal sense, since it was his mother who was a descendant of David.
What does "Son of God" mean?
The title "Son of God" was, of course, completely familiar to the Jews in the time of Jesus and, in fact, for centuries before that: all Jews are sons of God, and this is what distinguished them from other peoples...
During the post-exilic period in Jewish history, this term was also applied to any pious man, and eventually became common in reference to the righteous man and the prince.
In all Jewish uses, this phrase was entirely a mere metaphor to emphasize a particular close connection between individual virtue and divine authority.
"Son of God," which was used for Jesus (peace be upon him) in his Jewish context, was interpreted literally by Roman Gentile Christian converts, accustomed to worshiping deified human beings.
(Son of God)
This description is metaphorical. It is repeated frequently in the Bible in general and in the New Testament in particular.
We see that many people receive this description.
Let us delve into this. First:
If Jesus Christ has exclusive rights to this title,
And in any case, the list of candidates for "Son of God" begins with Adam, according to Luke 3:38: "the son of Adam, the son of God."
Those who refute by citing Matthew 3:17
("And a voice from heaven said, 'This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.'") have overlooked the fact that the Bible describes many people, including Israel and Adam, as "sons of God."
Both in 2 Samuel 7:13-14 and in 1 Chronicles 22:10, it reads: "He (Solomon) shall build a house for My name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever. I will be his Father, and he shall be My son."
Entire nations are called sons or children of God. Among them:
Why does the Bible record: "I (God) am the father of Israel; Ephraim (i.e., Israel) is my firstborn"
(Jeremiah 31:9 NIV),
and "Thus says the Lord: Israel is My son, My firstborn"
(Exodus 4:22)?
1. Genesis 6:2, “that the sons of God saw the daughters of men…”.
2. Genesis 6:4, “There were giants on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of men…”.
3. Deuteronomy 14:1, “You are the children of the Lord your God”.
4. Job 1:6, “Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the Lord…”.
5. Job 2:1, “Again there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the Lord…”.
6. Job 38:7, “When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?”
7. Philippians 2:15, “That you may be blameless and harmless, children of God without fault in the midst of a crooked and perverse generation…”.
8. 1 John 3:1-2, “Behold what manner of love the Father has bestowed on us, that we should be called children of God… Beloved, now we are children of God…”
Taking this in the context of Romans 8:14, which says: “For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, these are sons of God,” many scholars conclude that “Son of God” is metaphorical and, like with christos, does not imply exclusivity. After all,
Nowhere in the Bible did Jesus call himself a literal “son of God.” Not once. Nowhere. And in any case,
The Christian clergy openly acknowledges the above, but declares that although Jesus never called himself “son of God,” others did.
This also has its answer. Investigating the manuscripts that make up the New Testament, one finds that the alleged “sonship” of Jesus is based on the mistranslation of two Greek words: pais and huios, both of which can be translated as “son.” However, this translation does not seem honest.
The Greek word pais derives from the Hebrew ebed, which has the primary meaning of “servant” or “slave.” Therefore, the primary translation of pais theou is “servant of God,” with “child” or “son of God” being an extravagant ornament.
The Greek word "παῖς" (pronounced "pais") has meanings, among which stand out "servant of God," "servant," or "slave." In religious contexts, especially in the Bible, this word is used to refer to "servant" or "slave." On the other hand, the Hebrew word "עֶבֶד" (pronounced "ebed") means "servant" or "slave." When translating Hebrew texts into Greek, as in the Septuagint, "עֶבֶד" is often translated as "παῖς."
This becomes even more interesting because it fits perfectly with the prophecy in the book of Isaiah 42:1, where the term "עַבְדִּי" (my servant) is used in the sense of "my servant" or "my slave." When quoting this text in the New Testament, such as in the Gospel of Matthew 12:18, “Behold my servant [from the Greek pais] whom I have chosen, My Beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased…,” the Greek term "παῖς" is used to refer to "my servant." In the biblical context, it is used in the sense of "servant" or "slave."
Additionally, there is another Greek word used to refer to "servant," which is "δοῦλος" (pronounced "doulos"), meaning "servant" or "slave." However, in some contexts, "παῖς" is preferred to express a special relationship between God and His servant, which conveys a sense of intimacy and divine choice.
Therefore, the accurate translation of the phrase "παῖς θεοῦ" is "servant of God" or "slave of God." The use of a translation like "child of God" or "son of God" may not be precise and is considered an expanded interpretation that goes beyond the original meaning of the term. It is important to consider the linguistic and cultural context when translating these terms to ensure the preservation of the intended meaning in the original text.
According to the Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, “the original Hebrew of pais in the phrase pais theou, that is, ebed, emphasizes a personal relationship and has the primary sense of ‘slave.’”
It does not matter if one reads the King James Version, New King James Version, New Revised Standard Version, or New International Version, the word is “servant” in all cases (NE).
Regarding the religious use of the word ebed, “the term serves as an expression of humility used by the righteous before God and is used to describe the relationship between humans and the Creator, where the term expresses complete submission to God and the recognition of His sovereignty. This word is not just a title but an expression of a spiritual identity that reflects humility as a central virtue in faith, embodying humility as a spiritual force. Through service and the recognition of the need for God.
Furthermore, “after 100 B.C., pais theou generally meant ‘servant of God,’ as when applied to Moses, the prophets, or the three youths (Baruch 1:20; 2:20; Daniel 9:35).”